the Website of Timothy McCabe Follower of Christ; Student of Epistemology, Apologetics, and Theology
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Polytheism

Definition

Polytheism refers to any philosophy which claims that there are multiple supreme creators of the universe.

Keywords: Polytheism, Philosophy, Multiple, Gods, Irrational, False, Contradictory, Creation, Deductive, Argument From Reason.

Veracity

Polytheistic claims are false .

Proof

Humans assume that all contradictions are false. Any worldview that does not allow for this assumption to be rationally justified is deductively false.

Premise 1: If anyone is not the author of every aspect of creation, then his authority is insufficient to rationally guarantee the behavior of creation.

Premise 2: Under polytheism, no one is the author of every aspect of creation.

Conclusion: Therefore, under polytheism, no one has the authority to rationally guarantee the behavior of creation.

Humans assume that creation is non-contradictory. Under polytheism, there can ultimately be no reason to hold to this assumption, making it an irrational assumption.

This Argument from Reason therefore demonstrates that polytheism is deductively false.

Gilbert Guttlebocker, Defender of Dragons

Gilbert Guttlebocker, Defender of Dragons

Riveting, yet absurd; romantic, yet innocent; Gilbert Guttlebocker, Defender of Dragons is a little Roald Dahl, a little Harry Potter, and a little Chronicles of Narnia, all rolled into one. Timothy McCabe collaborates with the great Benedict Ballyhoot to bring you the novel of the century!

 

World Religions and Cults (volume 2)

In Printed Form

Along with numerous other authors including Don Landis, Bodie Hodge and Roger Patterson, Timothy McCabe contributes analyses of various world religions and cults in this volume from Master Books.

Other Writings

"In my previous question you beautifully pointed it out yet missed it: Jesus says I have lost NONE and also (same context) lost ONE. Math contradiction, is it N/ONE?"

Thanks for the clarification. I understand your question now. The question is with regards to John 17:12 and John 18:9. In John 17:12, Jesus tells His Father that He lost one of those whom His Father gave to Him, namely, Judas Iscariot. In John 18:9, the author of John tells us that Jesus did not lose one. So which is it? One or none?
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"I'd like to hear an explanation to any of these questions without referencing the bible. For those of us that don't believe I the inerrancy of that Bronze-aged text, it would be refreshing."

You want an authoritative Christian answer that doesn't appeal to Christianity's authority? Interesting idea. Let me think on it for a little bit... Hmmm... No. (Deuteronomy 6:6-9; Joshua 1:8, 23:6; 1 Kings 2:3; Psalm 1:2; Proverbs 7:1; Matthew 4:4-10; Mark 12:24; Luke 1:3, 10:26, 11:28, 16:29, 24:27; John 21:24; Acts 17:11, 18:28; 1 Corinthians 2:13, 14:37; Ephesians 6:17; 1 Thessalonians 2:13; 2 Timothy 3:16-17; Hebrews 4:12; 2 Peter 1:21; Revelation 1:3, 22:19)
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"Does the biblical god "YHWH" tempt? Because it says in Gen. 22:11 that God tempted Abraham, and in James 1:13 it says "God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man? Which should I believe?"

Here are the verses in question from the NASB: Genesis 22:1 Now it came about after these things, that God tested (KJV - "did tempt") Abraham, and said to him, "Abraham!" And he said, "Here I am." James 1:13 Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone.
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