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Rationalism

Definition

Rationalism describes any philosophy that claims that beliefs and opinions should always be logical, deductive conclusions rather than being based on experience, observations, religious teachings, or divine revelation.

Keywords: Rationalism, Philosophy, Logical, Reasoning, Deductive, Experience, Observations, Religious, Revelation, Contradictory.

Veracity

Rationalistic claims are false .

Proof

All self-refuting or contradictory claims are deductively false.

Premise 1: Only deductive conclusions should be believed.

Premise 2: Premise 1, being the foundation or starting point of the philosophy, is not itself a deductive conclusion.

Conclusion: Therefore, premise 1, also known as "rationalism", should not be believed.

Rationalistic claims, when adhered to, require the rejection of rationalistic claims. To accept them is to reject them, making rationalism inherently contradictory and deductively false.

See also

Deism

World Religions and Cults (volume 2)

In Printed Form

Along with numerous other authors including Don Landis, Bodie Hodge and Roger Patterson, Timothy McCabe contributes analyses of various world religions and cults in this volume from Master Books.

Other Writings

"If we are so sure that the Pentateuch is accurate then why are there so many discrepencies?:One of them is: Exodus Ch.33 V.20 vs. Genesis 32:30. In one place: God says no man can see Him and live, and then Jacob is celebrating to have done just that."

Here are the relevant passages (NASB)... Exodus 33:20 But He said, "You cannot see My face, for no man can see Me and live!" Genesis 32:30 So Jacob named the place Peniel, for he said, "I have seen God face to face, yet my life has been preserved." Neither of these passages is intended to be taken literally.
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"There is a limit on the number of characters you can type, so sorry about that. For my first question you beautifully pointed it out yet missed it: Jesus says I have lost NONE and also(same context) lost ONE. Math contradiction, is it N/ONE?"

Thanks for the clarification. I understand your question now. The question is with regards to John 17:12 and John 18:9. In John 17:12, Jesus tells His Father that He lost one of those whom His Father gave to Him, namely, Judas Iscariot. In John 18:9, the author of John tells us that Jesus did not lose one. So which is it? One or none?
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"Is what is morally good commanded by God because it is morally good, or is it morally good because it is commanded by God?"

This question has been around at least since Plato, and is known by the name of the "Euthyphro Dilemma". It's really nothing more than a silly trick question wearing a "deep" philosophical mask. If one were to go with the first option provided, it leads to the conclusion that God is subject to the authority of Objective Morality and is not actually able to do whatever He wants, making Him not really God.
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